If he was guilty, although proven innocent, why were opinions divided down racial lines? Was the wrong side, whichever that was, being racist?
My understanding is that to be convicted of a criminal offence, you need beyond reasonable doubt, which legally means approximately 95% sure. With civil cases, it is based on the preponderance of the evidence, which means above 50% sure. So, if he lost a civil case, it could be because he was marginally over the 50% line. It reminds me of Brexit in the UK. Roughly half wanted to stay in Europe, half leave. But because it was a straight vote, being slightly over tips the balance.
So, what we are really talking about here is where within the 50% to 95% probability range do you think the guilt resides. Lets take an average of that, say 72.5% likely guilty. Is that sure enough to condemn a potentially innocent man?
Edit: Enzymes may shrink gloves. But that is like me saying a lose a bit of height during the day, which is a fact, as gravity causes my spine to compress a little. Yet I don't start off 6'2" and end up a dwarf by the end of the day. So saying blood enzymes shrink leather does not mean that they shrink leather sufficiently for the glove to not fit. Where is the evidence that the gloves shrank by a certain amount? Is there any? Is it not possible that the gloves shrank slightly, but their original size was still too small?
Edit 2: Let us assume the gloves were massive before the shrinkage. How does that make OJ guilty? Why does the size of the gloves make him guilty or not guilty? If the gloves found fit OJ, why does that mean he is guilty if tight gloves don't?
It doesn't help when the investigating officer has admitted to previously falsifying evidence to further his hatred for blacks. (This last bit is from my recollection from the Netflix series.)